CLAT Legal Aptitude Sample Paper

CLAT Legal Aptitude Sample Paper
This CLAT Legal Aptitude sample paper consists 50 questions carrying 1 mark each.

Question 1:

Which Parliamentary Committee is describe as ‘Watch-dog’ and guardian of the people against official negligence of corruption?

(a) Committee on Estimates

(b) Public Accounts Committee

(c) Committee on Public Undertaking

(d) Committee on ‘Consolidated fund of India’

Question 2:

The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Power rests with

(a) The president of India

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Parliament

(d) The Union Ministry of Law justice and Company Affairs

Question 3:

Who finally approves the draft five-year plans?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Planning Commission

(c) President

(d) National Development Council

Question 4:

When did the UN General Assembly adopt the statute of the International Civil Service Commission :

(a) December, 1974

(b) December, 1976

(c) December, 1979

(d) December, 1978

Related: DU LLB Sample Paper 1

Question 5:

Which of the following is empowered to entertain any disputes relating to elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker to the Parliament on an elections petitions?

(a) Supreme Court of India

(b) High Courts

(c) Central Administrative Tribunal

(d) President of India in Consultation with the Election Commission

Question 6:

According to the Human Development Report 2006, India has acquired 126th place in HDI ranking which is. than that of last year.

(a) Two ranks up

(b) One rank up

(c) Two ranks down

(d) One rank down

Question 7:

What Is an ECO- MARK?

(a) A scheme for labelling Environment Friendly Consumer Product

(b) A Scheme for labelling pollution free industrial Unit

(c) A Cost-effective Production Technique

(d) An International Certification recognizing, Eco Friendly building

Related: CLAT Math Numerical Ability Sample Paper

Question 8:

The Government of India is planning to open Rail Link between Sealdah to Devpura. Devpura is locatd in -

(a) Nepal

(b) Bangladesh

(c) Bhutan

(d) Pakistan

Question 9:

Principle: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by the State can take away a person’s fundamental right.

Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.

(a) No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a law

(b) The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a new law

(c) The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to make a new law

(d) None of these

Question 10:

Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.

Fact: “Ramanuj telegraphed to Shyam Sunder, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price.” Shyam Sunder also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Ramanuj immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Shyam Sunder refused to sell the car.

(a) He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made.

(b) He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer

(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent

(d) None of these

Question 11:

Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.

Facts: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X.

(a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.

(b) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind at the time of contract.

(c) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of sound state of mind at the time of contract.

(d) None of these

Question 12:

Principle: Willful rash driving is an offense.

Facts: Mr. Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?

(a) No, because Mr. Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.

(b) No, this is not a negligent act.

(c) Yes, because Mr. Tiwari was driving rashly.

(d) Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person driving rashly.

Question 13:

Principle: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse.

Fact: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 28 Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for Transit’. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.

(a) X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago

(b) X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable

(c) X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable

(d) X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

Question 14:

Principle: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.

Facts: Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage.

(a) X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.

(b) X can be held responsible for trespass of goods

(c) X has not committed any wrong.

(d) None of the above.

Question 15:

Principle: Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping silent to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.

Facts: X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of mind. X says nothing to Y about the horse’s unsound state of mind. Give the correct answer-

(a) X can be held liable for fraud

(b) X can be held liable for misrepresentation

(c) X cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the mental state of the horse

(d) X cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things

Direction for questions 16 to 30: Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Question 16:

Assertion (A):  A void contract is not necessarily illegal

Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 17:

Assertion (A):  The state shall not make any law, which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

Reason (R): The fundamental rights are the rights reserved by the people and for this reason they are eternal and sacrosanct.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 18:

Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 19:

Assertion (A): During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price level.

Reason (R): The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 20:

Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.

Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 21:

Assertion (A): Austin’s concept of law is known as imperative theory.

Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 22:

Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.

Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 23:

Assertion (A):  A void contract is not necessarily illegal

Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 24:

Assertion (A):  The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.

Reason (R):  Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 25:

Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to   establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 26:

Assertion (A): In the Event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.

Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 27:

Assertion (A): During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price level.

Reason (R): The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 28:

Assertion (A): A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.

Reason (R): A person who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratuitous act of another must compensate him even though there is no contract.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 29:

Assertion (A): Austin’s concept of law is known as imperative theory

Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 30:

Assertion (a): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.

Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Question 31:

The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India

(I) Equality of status and of opportunity

(II) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship

(III) Justice-social, economic and political

(IV) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual

(V) Unity and Integrity of the nation

Which of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble?

(a) V – I – II – IV – III

(b) III – II – I – IV – V

(c) III – I – II – V – IV

(d) I – II – IV – III – V

Question 32:

Identify the correct statement:

(a) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of powers between a central and a number of regional authorities

(b) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of powers between Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

(c) Federalism implies a system of Government which embodies Parliamentary supremacy

(d) None of these

Question 33:

Consider the following statements:
I. In a recent Supreme Court verdict pronounced by Justice Markandeya Katju and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra, the court upheld the constitutionality of the Haj subsidy.

II. Muslims are not the only beneficiaries of the secular state’s generosity. Hindus have also received substantial financial support from the Government.

With reference to the statements mentioned above, which of the following is correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Question 34:

X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is

(a) Valid

(b) Void

(c) Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object

(d) Unlawful as being opposed to public policy

Question 35:

Ramu applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. After the meeting, one of the members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. Ramu claims damages. Which one of the following is the correct legal proposition in the case?

(a) Ramu cannot claim damages as he had not resigned from his existing post in anticipation of getting the appointment letter

(b) Ramu cannot claim damages as there was no formal communication

(c) Ramu can claim damages as governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed

(d) Ramu can claim damages as there was private communication

Question 36:

Ms. Usha wants to file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre praying for a permanent injunction (stay order) restraining the theatre from running the film named “Jai Santoshi Maa”. Her contention is that the film hurt her religious feelings and sentiments as Goddess Saraswati, Laxmi and Parvati were depicted as jealous and were ridiculed.

(a) She cannot file a suit because injury to religious feelings is not a legally recognized right.

(b) She cannot file a suit because the Theatre has a fundamental right to speech and expression.

(c) She can file a suit as injury to religious feelings has been legally recognized as a right (injuria sine damnum).

(d) It is a case of complete judicial discretion.

Question 37:

Match schedule one and two and choose the appropriate answer-

Schedule I                                                          Schedule II

i. Concurrent list                                      1. Constitution of Japan

ii. Rule of Law                                          2. Constitution of Ireland

iii. Directive Principle of State Policy            3. British Constitution

iv. Procedure established by law                4. Constitution of Australia

i ii iii iv
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1

Question 38:

X went to Y’s house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Y’s children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y.

(a) Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X

(b) Y is not bound to pay anything

(c) Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets

(d) Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Y’s children

Question 39:

Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.

(a) Y is not guilty of attempt to theft because the box was empty.

(b) Y is guilty of attempt to commit theft.

(c) Y is guilty of trespass.

(d) Y is not guilty of any offence.

Question 40:

Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.

(b) Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and profession

(c) Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice

(d) Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans by the Sikhs

Question 41:

The Right to Equality is guaranteed by-

(a) Article 14 to 18

(b) Article 14

(c) Article 14 and 15

(d) Article 14, 15 and 16

Question 42:

Mr. Samay was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV positive.  The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first-

(a) Doctors should operate first

(b) Doctors should inform his family members

(c) Doctors should inform his employers

(d) Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patient’s right of privacy

Question 43:

In which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be passed just by a simple majority in Parliament?

(a) Election matters

(b) Change in the name and boundaries of states

(c) Powers of the President

(d) None of the above

Question 44:

Match the schedule I and II and choose the appropriate answer-

Schedule I                  Schedule II

i Republic                1. Head of the state is elected by the people

ii Secular                 2. State does not recognize any religion as religion of the state

iii Democracy           3. The government which gets authority from the will of the people

i ii iii
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 1 3 2

Question 45:

Which one of the following is not a direct Tax?

(a) Income tax

(b) Estate duty

(c) Wealth tax

(d) Sales tax

Question 46:

Inflation is a state of ___.

(a) Fall in prices

(b) Rise in Prices

(c) No change in Prices

(d) None of the above

Question 47:

Joint Sector means ___.

(a) Collaboration with a foreign country

(b) Joining of public and private sector

(c) Participation of labour in management

(d) None of the above

Question 48:

What is ‘Zero hour’ in parliament?

(a) When the proposals of opposition are considered

(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised

(c) Interval between the morning and the afternoon session

(d) When a money bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha

Question 49:

Small Scale Industries include all industrial units with a capital investment of ___.

(a) Rs. 55 Lakhs

(b) Rs. 1 Crore

(c) Rs. 5.5 Lakhs

(d) Rs. 6.5 Lakhs

Question 50:

___ is NOT a Central Government tax.

(a) Income tax

(b) Customs Duty

(c) Land Revenue

(d) Corporation Tax

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